> I'm thinking the no-go trials would have the amplitude modulation. Is this correct?

Unless this has already been investigated, nobody really knows whether or how one trial type has impact on the other trial type depending on the number of trials in between. You can try using the number of go-trials between two consecutive no-go-trials as a modulator and see if such a correlation exists.

Also the classical modulation approach assumes a linear relationship, which may or may not be true.

> If so, is it ok if there is no amplitude modulation for the go trials?

You never know unless you model and test it.

> Does amplitude modulation make more sense than having 8 no-go (i.e., 0 - 7 intervening go trials) conditions?

The typical modulation approach is more efficient (using two regressors) but assumes linearity about the correlation, while the multiple regressors do *not* make any assumption about the relationship among those intervening go-trials. More importantly, which approach to adopt depends on the ultimate goal of your analysis.

Gang



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 05/09/2014 01:38PM by Gang.