Thank you very much for this help! This has worked exactly as hoped.
I was using -input and wasn’t using -invert (an oversight on my part) or -nozero. I also found that if I adjusted frequencies by multiplying by my TR (2s) when using 1dBandpass, I could also bandpass my .1D file of regressors directly.
Given I adjust the frequencies properly, do 1dBandpass and 3dBandpass work equivalently?
This seemed to work as planned when I bandpassed my timeseries, bandpassing my covariates, then regressing out these new covariates. The resulting timeseries retained the initial bandpass.
Thank you for the assistance here,
Best,
Will