AFNI Message Board

Dear AFNI users-

We are very pleased to announce that the new AFNI Message Board framework is up! Please join us at:

https://discuss.afni.nimh.nih.gov

Existing user accounts have been migrated, so returning users can login by requesting a password reset. New users can create accounts, as well, through a standard account creation process. Please note that these setup emails might initially go to spam folders (esp. for NIH users!), so please check those locations in the beginning.

The current Message Board discussion threads have been migrated to the new framework. The current Message Board will remain visible, but read-only, for a little while.

Sincerely, AFNI HQ

History of AFNI updates  

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Jim Eliassen
October 01, 2003 03:06PM
Hi Philippe, (hope you don't mind, I posted this to the message board as well)

(previous posts start with: [afni.nimh.nih.gov])

I don't think you want to multiply two thresholded (p<0.01) t-maps, because who knows what the distribution of t*t looks like. The threshold is not really 0.0001. That's a result of your method. Since your group data is based on separate baseline and activation conditions for each subject group you could do a somewhat more statistical "conjunction" analysis like I outlined in the previous post (http://afni.nimh.nih.gov/afni/phorum/read.php?f=1&i=1791&t=1744).

A better method for two data sets that have already been thresholded would be the following. Let's call the data sets

non-depressed+orig
depressed+orig

Take a thresholded t-map at 0.001 (the p you choose should be "significant" in each map separately). First, use 3dmerge to make maps that contain non-zero values only where p<0.001.

3dmerge -prefix non-depressed_p001 -1thresh 0.001 non-depressed+orig
3dmerge -prefix depressed_p001 -1thresh 0.001 depressed+orig


The output data sets should contain t-scores for voxels where p < 0.001 and zero elsewhere. You should check the results to make sure that any t-score with a p>0.001 is not included in the resulting mask. Then, to create a map of overlap and unique activation for the two conditions, use 3dcalc.

3dcalc -a non-depressed_p001+orig -b depressed_p001+orig -expr "(1*(a/a))+(2*(b/b))"

This will yield a map that has value 1 where only the non-depressed map is significant, 2 where only the depressed map is significant, 3 where both are significant, 0 where neither is significant. Again, this approach is NOT statistical, so I suggest this method to avoid a statistic in the "conjunction" map altogether. The method in the post from earlier is a way to make it statistical, I think, based on the Price and Friston paper.

good luck,

-jim

At 11:43 AM 10/1/2003, you wrote:

Jim:

Thank you very much for the explication.
I will try to implement your suggestions.

With SPM i did the following. I had two groups of subjects: depressed and non-depressed. i created a one-sample t-map for each group of the contrast of say BOLD response to Fear vs Neutral faces thresholded at p<.001. Then i re-did this with a more liberal threshold p<.01 and used the equivalent of 3dcalc to multiply the two one-sample t-maps so that only the overlap of voxels in activated clusters remained. Thus if there was a 0 value in a voxel in either group map then the conjunction map has a 0 value, only voxels with non-0 values in both group maps survives in the conjunction map. This is, as you pointed out, a qualitative result and not a statistical result in that the conjunction map only indicates voxels that overlap in both group maps. I was worried that multiplying a p<.01 x p<.01 results in a map that is essentially thresholded at p<.0001, and thus overly conservative. But i am not sure if that is correct? what do you think? If the resultant conjunction map is p<.0001, then i am definitely not visualizing areas that may be truly active, thus false negatives. I believe what i describe above is orthogonal because the each group has its own separate baseline or comparison task. If i was using a single group of subjects and generating a conjunction map for task a vs b and task c vs b, then the result is definitely not an orthogonal conjunction because of the identical baseline/comparison task. Do you agree with this logic?

I will try the 3dRegAna approach.

Let me know what you think.

philippe

At 10:26 AM 10/1/2003 -0400, you wrote:

Hi Philippe,

I tried to respond to your query on the afni message board. Wasn't sure if you'd see it, since it's been a week and your post migrated to the older messages.

-jim
Philippe Goldin
Department of Psychology
Stanford University
Jordan Hall, Bldg. 420
Stanford, CA 93405

Tel: 650/ 723-5977
Fax: 650-725-5699
E-mail: pgoldin@stanford.edu

Subject Author Posted

conjunction analysis

Jim Eliassen October 01, 2003 03:06PM

Re: conjunction analysis

Jim Eliassen October 01, 2003 03:13PM