AFNI Message Board

Dear AFNI users-

We are very pleased to announce that the new AFNI Message Board framework is up! Please join us at:

https://discuss.afni.nimh.nih.gov

Existing user accounts have been migrated, so returning users can login by requesting a password reset. New users can create accounts, as well, through a standard account creation process. Please note that these setup emails might initially go to spam folders (esp. for NIH users!), so please check those locations in the beginning.

The current Message Board discussion threads have been migrated to the new framework. The current Message Board will remain visible, but read-only, for a little while.

Sincerely, AFNI HQ

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rick reynolds
October 19, 2009 05:51PM
Hi Liz,

I think the answer to both questions is no, though they aren't
too far off.

There is no de-mean step. Rather the first regressor would be
the response curve at the mean amplitude, and the second would
be the modulation from the mean (and so its mean would be zero).

The regressors are not othogonalized either. However, if the
individual response curves do not overlap (so either slow-event
or block design), I would expect them to be orthogonal. But not
if they do overlap.

Does that seem reasonable?

- rick

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Subject Author Posted

AM regression

Liz October 19, 2009 06:04AM

Re: AM regression

rick reynolds October 19, 2009 05:51PM

Re: AM regression

rick reynolds October 19, 2009 06:00PM

Re: AM regression

Liz October 22, 2009 04:21AM