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September 17, 2007 05:39PM
I have another question about waver.

In the afni regession pdf file, it states that if the HRF regressor has a max amplitude of 1, then the beta coefficients will represent % signal change from the mean.

when you designate each timepoint in a block as '1' in the input into waver, you end up with amplitude greater then one (even when using peak =1), because the timepoints within a block overlap, even though each block is separated in time.

can the beta coefficients still be interpreted as % signal change?

Does this interpretation depend on how you normalize your data?

In the same afni doc they normalize the timecourse to the min(200, a/b*100)

we usually normalize to ((a-b)/b)*100 does this make a difference?




Two other points. the normalization given in the doc appears to be missing a parenthese. shouldn't it be min(200,(a/b)*100)?

2) waver doesn't come close to obeying the peak =1 unless your input file is 1's and 0s, not 0's and 10's as outputed by sqwave.... is there a way to change what value is used in sqwave?

thanks,
stephanie
Subject Author Posted

Waver peak problem?

Bonnie February 14, 2007 12:49PM

Re: Waver peak problem?

Giorgio Ganis February 14, 2007 01:05PM

Re: Waver peak problem?

Lisa T. Eyler February 14, 2007 02:05PM

Re: Waver peak problem?

Ziad Saad February 14, 2007 02:30PM

Re: Waver peak problem?

Bonnie February 14, 2007 02:48PM

Re: Waver peak problem?

Ziad Saad February 15, 2007 09:36AM

Re: Waver peak problem?

Stephanie McMains September 17, 2007 05:39PM

Re: Waver peak problem?

Gang Chen September 17, 2007 06:08PM

Re: Waver peak problem?

rick reynolds September 17, 2007 08:50PM

Re: Waver peak problem?

Colm Connolly February 15, 2007 07:14AM