Hello all-

I am new to this fMRI business, so please forgive me if this is an old question, but I have searched the site without an answer.

I am wondering if anyone has an opinion about the appropriateness of using z scores in a group analysis (i.e., using z scores as the DV) rather than something like percent signal change or the parameter estimate itself. This seems wrong to me, but I have seen it used. I note that this is not the recommended approach in AFNI, and you generally wouldn't do it in a standard behavioral study. Does anyone know of any discussion of the pros and cons of such an approach?

Thanks.

Anthony